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GATE 2026 Important Questions in Civil Engineering – CE Welcome to EII - Your Gateway to Success!
Boost your GATE 2026 preparation with a carefully selected set of important questions in Civil Engineering (CE), curated by the experienced faculty of Engineers Institute of India (EII). Trusted for its specialized coaching and consistent results in Civil Engineering, EII is dedicated to guiding you toward top performance in the upcoming GATE examination.
Q.1 Which word completes the analogy "Fish is to Shoal as Lion is to _______"?
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Analogies are based on relationships between pairs of words, so we need to determine the specific relationship and apply it consistently.
Step 1: Analyze the Relationship
Step 2: Apply the Relationship to Lion
Q.2 Which sentence is grammatically correct?
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
A - "It is I who am responsible" translates to "I am the one who am responsible," which is grammatically consistent:
Other options fail:
Q.3 Cars P and Q start from point X in Gurugram at 10 AM. Car P heads North at 25 km/h and travels continuously, while Car Q heads East at 30 km/h but stops after 1 hour. If both are equidistant from X at 11:30 AM, how many minutes did Car Q stop for?
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Step 1: Distance by car P at 11:30 AM
Step 2: Distance by car Q
Step 3: Calculate Q’s travel time
Step 4: Find stoppage time
Q.4 Which statement is NOT true for all real 𝑥 regarding floor and ceiling functions?
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The ceiling function ⌈x⌉ is the smallest integer ≥ x, and the floor function ⌊x⌋ is the largest integer ≤ x. We need to identify a statement that’s NOT true for all real x.
Common statement to test: ⌊x⌋ + 1 = ⌈x⌉
For x = 2.3:
For x = 2:
The statement ⌊x⌋ + 1 = ⌈x⌉ is NOT correct for all x.
Q.5 P and Q play chess. P wins 80%, draws 15%, and loses 5%. If they play 3 more matches, what is the probability that P wins exactly 2?
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
To find the probability that P wins exactly 2 of 3 chess matches against Q, given P's win rate is 80%, draw rate is 15%, and loss rate is 5%, we use the binomial probability formula. The outcomes are win, draw, or loss, but the question asks for the probability of exactly 2 wins, so we focus on wins versus non-wins.
Q.6 Select the most logical sentence sequence to form a paragraph.
P. At once, without thinking much, people rushed towards the city in hordes with the sole aim of grabbing as much gold as they could.
Q. However, little did they realize about the impending hardships they would have to face on their way to the city: miles of mud, unfriendly forests, hungry beasts and inimical local lords – all of which would reduce their chances of getting gold to almost zero.
R. All of them thought that easily they could lay their hands on gold and become wealthy overnight.
S. About a hundred years ago, the news that gold had been discovered in Kolar spread like wildfire and the whole State was in raptures.
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Step 1: Analyze Sentence Connections
Sequence and Flow
Q.7 If HIDE → 19-23-7-11 and CAGE → 5-2-17-11, what is the code for HIGH?
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
HIDE → 19-23-7-11
CAGE → 5-2-17-11
HIGH ⇒ 19-23-17-19
Q.8 A figure is reflected horizontally and then rotated 90° clockwise. Which is the resulting figure?
Answer: (Depends on actual figures shown)
Explanation:
Anti-clockwise figure
Reflection along horizontal line figure
Q.9 Arrange in increasing order of lines of symmetry: Isosceles triangle, Equilateral triangle, Square, Circle.
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Correct Sequence of Objects Based on Increasing Number of Mirror Lines (Lines of Symmetry)
Q.10 A student has 0.8 and 0.6 probability of job offers from Company S and T respectively. What is the probability of getting both?
Answer: (B)
Explanation: P (S) = 0.8 P (T) = 0.6 P (S∩T) = P (S) . P (T) = (0.8) . (0.6) = 0.48
Q1. A system of forces is said to be coplanar if:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: A coplanar system of forces implies that all forces act within the same plane, regardless of their direction, magnitude, or point of application. Options (B), (C), and (D) describe concurrent, parallel, or equal magnitude forces, respectively, which are not necessary for coplanarity.
Q2. A body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces. The forces are:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: For a body to be in equilibrium under three forces, the forces must be coplanar (lie in the same plane).
Q3. A free-body diagram (FBD) represents:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: An FBD is a diagrammatic representation of all external forces, moments, and reactions acting on an isolated body or system, used to analyze equilibrium or motion.
Q4. In a free-body diagram of a beam supported by a hinge and a roller, how many unknown reaction forces are typically present?
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A hinge provides two reactions (horizontal and vertical) and a roller provides one vertical reaction. Hence, total unknowns are 3.
Q5. The condition of static equilibrium for a body is satisfied when:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A body is in static equilibrium when both the net force and net moment acting on it are zero.
Q6. If a body is in equilibrium, the net external force and net external moment on the body are:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: In equilibrium, both net external force and net external moment must be zero.
Q7. In a simply supported beam, the internal force that resists bending is called:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Bending moment resists the tendency of a beam to bend under external loads.
Q8. A two-force member in a truss is subjected to:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Two-force members experience only axial forces, since forces act at two points and are collinear.
Q9. The internal forces in a structure are the forces developed:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Internal forces develop between adjacent parts in response to external loads.
Q10. A block is on the verge of sliding down an inclined plane at 30°. The coefficient of static friction is closest to:
Answer: (A)
Q11. Which of the following statements is true about kinetic friction?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Kinetic friction is generally less than static friction and remains constant once motion begins, proportional to the normal force (fk = μk ⋅ N). It does not depend on the angle of inclination directly but on the normal force.
Q12. The centre of mass of a system of particles is:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The centre of mass is the point where the entire mass of the system can be assumed to be concentrated for the purpose of analyzing translational motion under gravity (weight). It is not necessarily the geometric centre or the point of equilibrium.
Q13. For a uniform rectangular plate, the centre of mass is located at:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: For a uniform rectangular plate, the centre of mass lies at the geometric centre, which is the intersection of the diagonals, due to symmetry in mass distribution.
Q14. The maximum static frictional force is given by:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The maximum static frictional force is given by the product of the coefficient of static friction (μs) and the normal force (N).
Q15. A body of mass m is at rest. It is acted upon by two forces of magnitudes F1 and F2. If the body is in equilibrium, the direction of these forces must satisfy:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: In equilibrium, two forces acting on a body must be in opposite directions and have equal magnitude to balance each other out.
Q16. In an undamped SDOF system, the amplitude of free vibration:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: In an undamped SDOF system, there is no energy dissipation, so the amplitude of free vibration remains constant over time, following simple harmonic motion.
Q17. (MSQ) Which of the following are the equilibrium conditions for a rigid body?
Answers: (A), (B), (C)
Explanation: Equilibrium conditions require the sum of forces in all directions to be zero and the sum of moments to be zero. Velocity is not a condition for static equilibrium.
Q18. (MSQ) Which of the following are assumptions made in the study of friction?
Answers: (B), (C)
Explanation: Friction is generally considered to be independent of the contact area and proportional to the normal force. The other assumptions are incorrect.
Q19. (MSQ) Which of the following statements are true regarding the analysis of a system of forces using free-body diagrams (FBDs) in a 2D plane?
Answers: (A), (C)
Explanation:
(A): A free-body diagram represents all external forces (e.g., applied loads, reactions) and moments acting on an isolated body or system. True.
(B): Internal forces are not shown in an FBD. False.
(C): For equilibrium in 2D, sum of moments must be zero. True.
(D): FBD is not used to determine center of mass. False.
Q20. (MSQ) Which of the following statements are true for an undamped single degree of freedom (SDOF) system and the concept of friction in engineering mechanics?
Answers: (A), (C), (D)
Explanation:
Q1. The bending moment at a point on a statically determinate beam is:
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The bending moment at a point on a statically determinate beam depends on the applied load and the distance from the support.
Q2. The shear force in a beam is maximum at the:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The shear force is maximum at the points of applied load and reduces as one moves away from the point of application.
Q3. The formula for the maximum bending stress in a beam is derived from:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The maximum bending stress in a beam is derived from the simple bending theory: σ = My/I, where M is the bending moment, y is the distance from the neutral axis, and I is the moment of inertia.
Q4. Shear stress in a beam is:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Shear stress is maximum at the neutral axis and zero at the top and bottom surfaces of a beam under bending.
Q5. The bending stress at a point in a beam depends on:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The bending stress at any point in a beam is directly proportional to the distance from the neutral axis, given by σ = My/I.
Q6. The shear force and bending moment at a point on a beam are related by:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The relationship between shear force (V) and bending moment (M) is given by dM/dx = V.
Q7. In the transformation of stress, the normal stress in the inclined plane is given by:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The normal stress on an inclined plane under uniaxial stress is given by σ = σx cos²θ.
Q8. The flexural rigidity of a beam is given by:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Flexural rigidity is the product of Young's modulus (E) and the second moment of area (I): EI.
Q9. A column will buckle when the axial load exceeds the:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A column will buckle when the axial load exceeds its crippling load, which is the critical load causing buckling.
Q10. For the combined direct and bending stresses, the combined stress at a point on a column is:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Combined stress = Direct stress ± Bending stress = P/A ± My/I.
Q11. The shear stress in a solid shaft subjected to torsion is:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The shear stress due to torsion is maximum at the surface of the shaft and zero at the center.
Q12. The torque required for uniform torsion in a shaft is directly proportional to:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The torque required for uniform torsion is directly proportional to the polar moment of inertia of the shaft.
Q13. The stress distribution across a beam section under pure bending is:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under pure bending, the stress distribution across a beam section is linear, with maximum tensile and compressive stresses at the outer fibers.
Q14. For a solid shaft under torsion, the shear stress is calculated as:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Shear stress τ = T*r/J, where T is torque, r is radius, and J is the polar moment of inertia.
Q15. The critical buckling load for a column is given by:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Euler’s formula for critical buckling load: P = π²EI/L² for pinned-pinned column.
Q16. In a beam under bending, the neutral axis is:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The neutral axis is the axis in the beam where the bending stress is zero.
Q17. The maximum shear stress in a solid shaft under torsion occurs at:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The maximum shear stress in a solid shaft under torsion occurs at the surface of the shaft.
Q18. The bending stress at any point in a beam is:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Bending stress is directly proportional to the distance from the neutral axis as per the formula σ = My/I.
Q19. The modulus of resilience is defined as the:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The modulus of resilience is the amount of energy per unit volume that a material can absorb before it reaches the elastic limit.
Q20. The total deflection of a beam under a point load at its center is:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: For a centrally loaded simply supported beam, deflection δ = (PL³)/(48EI), so it is proportional to the cube of the length.
Q21. Which of the following are assumptions in the simple bending theory?
Answers: (A), (B), (C), (D)
Explanation: These are all assumptions in the simple bending theory.
Q22. Which of the following conditions are required for buckling of a column?
Answers: (A), (B), (D)
Explanation: For buckling to occur, the column should be long and slender, and the load must be axial and compressive.
Q1. For a statically determinate structure, the number of equilibrium equations is equal to:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: For a statically determinate structure, the number of equilibrium equations (which is 3 for 2D and 6 for 3D structures) is equal to the number of unknown forces.
Q2. The method of superposition is applicable only to:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The method of superposition is applicable to linear elastic systems where the principle of linearity holds.
Q3. In a truss, the forces in the members are determined by:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The forces in the members of a truss are determined using equilibrium equations, as it is a statically determinate structure.
Q21. Which of the following are the assumptions in the slope-deflection method?
Answers: (A), (B), (D)
Explanation: These are the key assumptions in the slope-deflection method where the structure is linear, elastic, and the sections remain plane after deformation.
Q22. The following methods are used to solve statically indeterminate structures:
Answers: (A), (B), (C), (D)
Explanation: All of these methods—moment distribution, slope deflection, flexibility, and stiffness methods—are used for solving statically indeterminate structures.
Q4. The flexibility method of analysis is mainly used for:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The flexibility method is used for statically indeterminate structures, where the unknown displacements are determined first.
Q5. The slope deflection method is most useful for analyzing:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The slope deflection method is most useful for analyzing beams and frames, especially when there are multiple supports and internal moments.
Q6. The moment distribution method is a:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The moment distribution method is a force method used for analyzing indeterminate structures by distributing moments between joints.
Q7. The bending moment at a point in a beam with a fixed support can be determined using:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Both the slope-deflection method and the moment distribution method can be used to determine bending moments in statically indeterminate beams.
Q8. The influence line for a reaction at a point is:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The influence line for a reaction shows how the reaction changes as a load moves across the beam.
Q9. In the stiffness method, the unknowns are:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: In the stiffness method, the unknowns are the displacements, and the forces are computed from the stiffness matrix.
Q10. In the flexibility method, the unknowns are:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: In the flexibility method, the unknowns are the internal forces, and displacements are calculated from the force-displacement relationships.
Q11. A frame is a structure consisting of:
Answer: (D)
Explanation: A frame consists of beams, columns, and possibly other structural elements like arches or cables.
Q12. The method of joints is used for analyzing:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The method of joints is a common method used to analyze trusses, focusing on equilibrium at each joint.
Q13. The relationship between the internal forces and the external loads is given by:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The internal forces and external loads are related by equilibrium equations, ensuring the structure is in balance.
Q14. Which of the following methods is used for solving displacement in indeterminate structures?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The flexibility method is primarily used for solving displacements in statically indeterminate structures.
Q15. The method of superposition assumes that:
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The method of superposition assumes that the system is linear and the structure is elastic.
Q16. The displacement method is most suitable for:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The displacement method is most suitable for solving statically indeterminate structures where displacement is the primary unknown.
Q17. The energy method in structural analysis is based on:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The energy method in structural analysis uses both strain energy and the work done by external loads to solve for forces or displacements.
Q18. Which of the following is not a displacement method of structural analysis?
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The moment distribution method is a force method, not a displacement method.
Q19. The stiffness matrix is used in:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The stiffness matrix is used in the stiffness method of structural analysis to relate displacements to forces.
Q20. The analysis of arches involves:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The analysis of arches involves both horizontal and vertical forces, along with their effect on the shape and internal forces in the structure.
Q21. Which of the following are the assumptions in the slope-deflection method?
Answer: (A), (B), (D)
Explanation: These are the key assumptions in the slope-deflection method where the structure is linear, elastic, and the sections remain plane after deformation.
Q22. The following methods are used to solve statically indeterminate structures:
Answer: (A), (B), (C), (D)
Explanation: All of these methods—moment distribution, slope deflection, flexibility, and stiffness methods—are used for solving statically indeterminate structures.
Q1. The working stress design method is based on:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The working stress design method is based on the concept of allowable stresses in the material, ensuring the structure remains safe under working loads.
Q2. In the limit state design method, the design is based on:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The limit state design method ensures safety by considering all possible modes of failure, such as ultimate strength, stability, and serviceability.
Q3. The design of tension members in steel structures is mainly governed by:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Tension members are primarily designed to resist axial tensile forces, which govern their design.
Q4. A beam-column is a structural element subjected to:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A beam-column is subjected to both axial loads and bending moments, which affect its design.
Q5. The effective length of a column depends on:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The effective length of a column depends on the boundary conditions or end conditions (fixed, pinned, free, etc.), which determine its buckling capacity.
Q6. Which of the following is true for eccentric connections?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: In eccentric connections, the applied force does not act along the centerline of the member, creating a bending moment in addition to axial force.
Q7. The plastic analysis of a beam is based on:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Plastic analysis is based on the assumption that the beam will form plastic hinges at certain points under overload conditions, leading to a redistribution of moments.
Q8. In the design of column bases, the base plate must:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A column base plate must have sufficient area to distribute the axial load to the foundation, ensuring the base does not fail under the applied load.
Q9. In the design of plate girders, the shear buckling strength of the web is controlled by:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The shear buckling strength of the web of a plate girder is influenced by the thickness of the web and its support conditions.
Q10. The moment-curvature relationship in plastic analysis is:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The moment-curvature relationship in plastic analysis is bilinear, where the curve initially follows the elastic behavior, but once the yield point is reached, the curve becomes flat, representing plastic behavior.
Q.11 The design of a compression member in steel structures is based on:
(A) Bending stress
(B) Axial compression and buckling
(C) Axial tension
(D) Shear stress
Answers: (B)
Explanation: Compression members in steel structures are designed to resist axial compression, considering the effects of buckling.
Q.12 The primary purpose of using a gusset plate in a connection is:
(A) To increase the member strength
(B) To distribute loads across multiple members
(C) To reduce the overall weight
(D) To act as a brace for members
Answers: (B)
Explanation: Gusset plates are used to distribute the applied loads across multiple members, ensuring a stable and efficient connection.
Q.13 In the design of beam-column connections, the primary concern is:
(A) Shear force distribution
(B) Lateral displacement
(C) Moment transfer and stability
(D) Direct shear force only
Answers: (C)
Explanation: Beam-column connections must be designed to transfer bending moments and ensure stability between the beam and column.
Q.14 The moment resistance of a plastic hinge in a beam is:
(A) Limited by the elastic modulus of the material
(B) The same for all sections of the beam
(C) Limited by the yield strength of the material
(D) Unrestricted
Answers: (C)
Explanation: The moment resistance of a plastic hinge is limited by the yield strength of the material at that section.
Q.15 The primary function of a plate girder is to:
(A) Support axial loads only
(B) Transfer shear and bending moment efficiently
(C) Resist torsion only
(D) Act as a compression member
Answers: (B)
Explanation: Plate girders are designed to efficiently transfer shear and bending moment, especially in long spans.
Q.16 The critical load for buckling in a column depends on:
(A) The column's slenderness ratio
(B) The type of loading (axial or eccentric)
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Answers: (C)
Explanation: The critical load for buckling depends on the column's slenderness ratio and the type of loading (whether the load is axial or eccentric).
Q.17 The design of tension members in a truss is primarily based on:
(A) Axial tension capacity
(B) Shear stress
(C) Bending stress
(D) Flexural strength
Answers: (A)
Explanation: Tension members in a truss are designed based on their axial tension capacity, which governs their design.
Q.18 The bending strength of a beam in plastic analysis is:
(A) Limited by the yield strength of the material
(B) Dependent on the section modulus
(C) Dependent on the span length
(D) A and B
Answers: (D)
Explanation: The bending strength of a beam in plastic analysis is limited by the yield strength of the material and is also dependent on the section modulus.
Q.19 In limit state design, the safety factor is:
(A) Constant for all types of loads
(B) Only used for compressive members
(C) Different for different types of loads and material strengths
(D) Not used in limit state design
Answers: (C)
Explanation: In limit state design, the safety factor varies based on the type of loads (dead, live, etc.) and material strengths.
Q.20 A truss is considered to be a structure where:
(A) All members are subjected to bending
(B) All members are subjected to axial forces only
(C) Some members are subjected to axial forces and some to bending
(D) All members are subjected to shear forces
Answers: (B)
Explanation: A truss is designed such that all members are subjected to axial forces (either tension or compression), and not to bending or shear forces.
Q.21 Which of the following are considered when designing beam-column connections?
(A) Moment transfer
(B) Axial load transfer
(C) Shear force distribution
(D) Stability against lateral displacement
Answers: (A), (B), (D)
Explanation: Beam-column connections must ensure moment transfer, axial load transfer, and stability against lateral displacement.
Q.22 Which of the following are true for the plastic analysis of structures?
(A) It is based on the assumption of plastic hinges
(B) Moment redistribution is allowed
(C) The structure behaves elastically at all times
(D) Plastic analysis applies only to beams, not frames
Answers: (A), (B)
Explanation: Plastic analysis assumes the formation of plastic hinges, and allows moment redistribution within the structure.
Q1. The total volume of soil is made up of:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The total volume of soil consists of solid particles, water, and air, which are the three phases in the three-phase system of soil mechanics.
Q2. The principle of effective stress is important for:
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The principle of effective stress governs the behavior of soil under stress, which is crucial for understanding permeability, slope stability, and consolidation.
Q3. The soil classification system used for fine-grained soils, based on their plasticity, is known as:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Unified Soil Classification System (USCS) classifies soils based on their particle size and plasticity index, which is particularly useful for fine-grained soils.
Q4. Which of the following is a characteristic of the capillary rise in soil?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Capillary rise is influenced by the particle size of the soil, with finer soils (e.g., clay) having higher capillary rise due to smaller pore spaces.
Q5. Quicksand condition occurs when:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Quicksand condition occurs when the effective stress in the soil is zero, which means that the soil particles are no longer in contact with each other, resulting in loss of strength.
Q6. The permeability of soil is primarily governed by:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The permeability of soil is mainly controlled by the grain size distribution, with coarser soils like sands having higher permeability than finer soils like clays.
Q7. Seepage through soils is best analyzed using:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Seepage through soils is best analyzed using Darcy's law, which relates the flow rate to the permeability of the soil and the hydraulic gradient.
Q8. The consolidation of clayey soils under load occurs due to:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Consolidation occurs in clayey soils as water is gradually expelled from the voids, leading to a decrease in the void ratio and volume of the soil.
Q9. The shear strength of soil depends on:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The shear strength of soil is determined by the normal stress and the frictional resistance between soil particles, which is typically characterized by cohesion and friction angle.
Q10. Which of the following is true for a stress-strain curve of clay?
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The stress-strain curve for clay typically shows a plastic region before failure, as clayey soils exhibit both elastic and plastic behavior under loading.
Q11. Which method is used for determining the consolidation time of a soil sample?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Casagrande's method is used to determine the time rate of consolidation by evaluating the time required for a soil sample to undergo significant consolidation.
Q12. The Indian Standard Soil Classification System (ISSCS) classifies soils based on:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The ISSCS classifies soils based on their plasticity index and liquid limit, which helps identify fine-grained soils such as clays and silts.
Q13. The primary purpose of compaction in soil is to:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The primary purpose of compaction is to reduce the void ratio, making the soil denser and more stable by expelling air and reducing the total volume of voids.
Q14. The Mohr’s Circle is used to determine:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Mohr's Circle is a graphical method used to determine the shear strength parameters, such as the maximum shear stress and the orientation of the failure plane.
Q15. The primary factor influencing one-dimensional consolidation is:
Answer: (D)
Explanation: One-dimensional consolidation is influenced by the soil type (clay or sand), the rate of water expulsion, and the drainage conditions (whether the soil is allowed to drain from one or both sides).
Q16. The capillarity force in soil is highest in:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Capillarity forces are highest in clays due to their smaller pore spaces, which allow the water to rise higher in the soil compared to coarser soils like sands.
Q17. The phase relationship in the three-phase system of soil mechanics involves:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The three-phase system involves the mass and volume of solid particles, water, and air, which makes up the total volume of the soil.
Q18. The one-dimensional consolidation test is typically performed in:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The one-dimensional consolidation test is performed using a consolidometer, which measures the vertical compression of a soil sample under an applied load.
Q19. The quicksand condition is a result of:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Quicksand condition occurs when the pore water pressure exceeds the effective stress, leading to a loss of friction between particles and causing the soil to behave like a fluid.
Q20. Which of the following is a factor that affects the permeability of a soil?
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Permeability is affected by the soil particle size, plasticity, and void ratio. Finer soils typically have lower permeability than coarser soils.
Q21. Which of the following factors affect the consolidation characteristics of soil?
Answers: (A), (B), (C)
Explanation: The consolidation characteristics of soil depend on the soil type, the amount of overburden pressure, and the drainage conditions.
Q22. Which of the following are true about effective stress in soils?
Answers: (A), (B), (D)
Explanation: Effective stress controls the shear strength of the soil, is calculated as the total stress minus the pore water pressure, and affects the permeability of soil.
Q1. The primary purpose of drilling boreholes during a subsurface investigation is to:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Drilling boreholes is primarily done to collect soil samples from different depths for further analysis of the soil properties, such as shear strength, density, and composition.
Q2. Which of the following tests is commonly used to assess the bearing capacity of soil?
Answer: (D)
Explanation: All these tests—Plate Load Test, SPT, and CPT—are used to assess the bearing capacity and other properties of the soil in foundation engineering.
Q3. According to Rankine's earth pressure theory, the active earth pressure:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Rankine’s earth pressure theory assumes that active earth pressure is the result of soil reaching a state of failure where the soil moves away from the retaining wall.
Q4. Which method is commonly used for slope stability analysis?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Bishop's method is widely used for slope stability analysis, particularly for determining the factor of safety against sliding.
Q5. In Boussinesq’s theory of stress distribution in soils, the distribution of stress beneath a point load is:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Boussinesq's theory describes the stress distribution beneath a point load as circular in shape, and the stress decreases with depth as the distance from the load increases.
Q6. The Terzaghi’s bearing capacity theory assumes which of the following?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Terzaghi's bearing capacity theory assumes uniform soil conditions and is applicable for shallow foundations under uniform loading.
Q7. The settlement of shallow foundations in clays is primarily due to:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Settlement in clays is mainly caused by consolidation, which occurs when water is expelled from the pores under load, leading to a decrease in volume and settlement.
Q8. The effect of water table on the bearing capacity of a foundation is:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The presence of the water table reduces the effective stress in the soil, which in turn reduces the soil's shear strength and, consequently, the bearing capacity of foundations.
Q9. A combined footing is used when:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A combined footing is used when the columns are close to each other, and a single foundation is designed to support both columns while distributing the load evenly.
Q10. Negative skin friction on piles is caused by:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Negative skin friction occurs when the surrounding soil settles downward, increasing the friction along the pile shaft and reducing the effective load-carrying capacity of the pile.
Q11. The modulus of elasticity of soil is important in determining:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The modulus of elasticity of soil is essential for estimating the settlement of foundations under load, which is crucial in foundation design.
Q12. Which of the following types of piles are used to resist both vertical and lateral loads?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Batter piles are inclined at an angle and are capable of resisting both vertical and lateral loads. They are often used in areas with high lateral loads, such as coastal or waterfront structures.
Q13. In a soil test, the term "shear strength" refers to the:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Shear strength is the resistance of a soil mass to failure by sliding or shearing along a plane within the soil.
Q14. The relationship between the ultimate bearing capacity and the depth of the foundation is:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The ultimate bearing capacity generally increases with the depth of the foundation due to the greater area of soil being utilized to support the load.
Q15. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Rankine earth pressure theory?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Rankine's theory assumes the soil to be homogeneous and isotropic, meaning its properties are uniform and the same in all directions.
Q16. The effective stress in soil is the stress that:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Effective stress refers to the stress carried by the solid soil particles, and it is crucial for determining the shear strength and consolidation behavior of soil.
Q17. In soil mechanics, a "consolidation" test is used to determine:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A consolidation test is conducted to determine the compressibility of the soil, which influences the amount of settlement the soil will undergo under load.
Q18. Which of the following methods is used to determine the permeability of soil in the laboratory?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The falling head test is used to determine the permeability of granular soils in the laboratory, particularly for soils with high permeability.
Q19. The primary objective of soil compaction is to:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Compaction increases the density of the soil by reducing the void spaces between soil particles, which improves the soil's bearing capacity and stability.
Q20. The unconfined compressive strength of a soil sample is typically determined by:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The unconfined compressive strength of soil is determined using a uniaxial compression test, where the sample is subjected to axial loading without lateral confinement.
Q11. Pile load tests are conducted to:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Pile load tests are typically conducted to determine the axial load capacity of piles, ensuring that the pile can support the required load.
Q12. For deep foundations, the axial load capacity of piles in sands is influenced by:
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The axial load capacity of piles in sands is influenced by factors such as the length, diameter, and type of material used for the pile, as well as the soil's properties.
Q13. The pressure bulb under a point load:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The pressure bulb under a point load represents the area where the stress from the load is significant, which is typically circular in shape and decreases with depth.
Q14. The static formula used to calculate the axial load capacity of piles in clays is based on:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The static formula for pile capacity in clays includes both the skin friction along the shaft and the end bearing capacity at the pile tip.
Q15. The combined bearing capacity of a pile group is:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The combined bearing capacity of a pile group is always less than the sum of the individual pile capacities due to the negative group effects, which include settlement and interaction between the piles.
Q16. The stability of slopes is typically analyzed by:
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The stability of slopes is analyzed using factors of safety, shear strength parameters, and limit equilibrium analysis to assess the potential for failure.
Q17. The effect of lateral loading on piles can be analyzed using:
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The effect of lateral loading on piles can be analyzed through pile load tests, lateral load tests, and by applying pile bending theory.
Q18. The bearing capacity of a shallow foundation is affected by:
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The bearing capacity of shallow foundations is influenced by the depth, width, and type of soil, as these factors affect the pressure distribution and soil resistance.
Q21. Which of the following are methods used for determining the bearing capacity of a foundation?
Answers: (A), (B)
Explanation: Both Terzaghi’s and Meyerhoff’s theories are used for determining the bearing capacity of shallow foundations.
Q22. Which of the following tests can be used to assess the settlement characteristics of a foundation?
Answers: (B), (C)
Explanation: The Plate Load Test and Cone Penetration Test (CPT) are commonly used to assess the settlement characteristics of the soil beneath foundations.
1. The pressure at a point in a static fluid is dependent on which of the following factors?
Answer: (D)
Explanation: In a static fluid, the pressure depends on the fluid's density and the depth of the point from the surface.
2. The Reynolds number for a flow helps determine the type of flow. What is the flow type when the Reynolds number is less than 2000?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: A Reynolds number less than 2000 indicates laminar flow, where the fluid flows smoothly in layers.
3. In fluid mechanics, which of the following conditions describes the principle of continuity?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The continuity equation states that the mass flow rate remains constant in an incompressible flow.
4. The lift force on a body moving through a fluid is primarily a result of:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The lift force arises due to pressure differences on the upper and lower surfaces of a body moving through a fluid, such as an airfoil.
5. What does Bernoulli’s equation assume for its derivation?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Bernoulli’s equation assumes steady, incompressible, and non-viscous flow, and is based on the conservation of energy.
6. What happens to the boundary layer thickness as the distance from the leading edge of a body increases?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: As the distance from the leading edge increases, the boundary layer grows thicker due to the gradual velocity change near the surface.
7. Which of the following does the Reynolds number help predict in fluid flow?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Reynolds number helps predict whether the flow is laminar or turbulent, based on the ratio of inertial forces to viscous forces.
8. What is the primary characteristic of turbulent flow in comparison to laminar flow?
Answer: (B)
Explanation: In turbulent flow, the fluid motion is irregular and chaotic, unlike laminar flow, which is smooth and orderly.
9. In the context of fluid flow, what is the effect of increasing pipe diameter on flow resistance?
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Increasing the pipe diameter decreases the resistance to flow, as larger diameter pipes allow more fluid to pass through with less friction.
10. Which of the following is an essential characteristic of a flow in a pipe to apply the Darcy-Weisbach equation?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Darcy-Weisbach equation is used for steady, incompressible flow to calculate head loss due to friction in pipes.
11. What does the Navier-Stokes equation primarily account for in fluid dynamics?
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Navier-Stokes equation describes the motion of viscous fluids, accounting for the effect of viscous forces on fluid flow.
12. Which of the following best characterizes a rotational flow?
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A rotational flow is characterized by non-zero vorticity, meaning the fluid particles exhibit rotational motion.
13. What type of flow is typically observed at a Reynolds number less than 2000?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Laminar flow occurs when the Reynolds number is less than 2000, with smooth, orderly fluid motion.
14. Boundary layer separation primarily leads to:
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Boundary layer separation leads to an increase in drag and causes instability in the flow, particularly in the wake region.
15. The Bernoulli equation is best applicable in flows that are:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Bernoulli's equation applies to steady, incompressible, and non-viscous flow conditions, assuming no energy loss due to friction.
16. Which flow regime requires special consideration of compressibility effects?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Compressibility effects are most significant in supersonic flow, where pressure and density changes become substantial.
17. In the concept of potential flow, the key characteristic is:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Potential flow assumes an irrotational velocity field, meaning the flow has no vortices and can be described by a potential function.
18. The principle of continuity for steady flow states that:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The continuity equation states that for steady, incompressible flow, the mass flow rate remains constant across different sections of a pipe.
19. What is the primary factor causing boundary layer separation?
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Boundary layer separation occurs due to the adverse pressure gradient, where the pressure increases in the flow direction, causing the boundary layer to detach from the surface.
20. When the Reynolds number is between 2000 and 4000, the flow is considered:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Flow with Reynolds numbers between 2000 and 4000 is transitional, meaning it exhibits characteristics of both laminar and turbulent flow.
TYPE: MSQs (Multiple Select Questions)
21. Which of the following are characteristics of turbulent flow? (Select all that apply)
Answer: (A), (B), (D)
Explanation:
22. Which of the following assumptions are made in the application of Bernoulli’s equation? (Select all that apply)
Answer: (A), (B), (C)
Explanation:
Q1. The hydrologic cycle primarily describes:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The hydrologic cycle describes the continuous movement of water between the earth's surface, water bodies, and the atmosphere through processes such as precipitation, evaporation, and infiltration.
Q2. Evapotranspiration refers to:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Evapotranspiration is the combined process of water being evaporated from soil and other surfaces, and transpiration from plants.
Q3. A watershed is defined as:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A watershed is an area of land where all precipitation drains to a common outlet, such as a river or lake.
Q4. Which of the following is a method for estimating flood discharge?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Unit Hydrograph method is used to estimate flood discharge based on the precipitation event and the resulting runoff.
Q5. The application of Darcy’s Law is primarily used for:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Darcy's Law is used to calculate the flow of groundwater through porous media, considering factors such as permeability and hydraulic gradient.
Q6. The duty of water in irrigation refers to:
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Duty refers to the amount of land that can be irrigated with a given amount of water, or the area that can be served by a specific volume of water.
Q7. In the design of gravity dams, the primary factor to consider is:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The primary design concern for gravity dams is ensuring they can withstand the water pressure acting on them, as they rely on their weight for stability.
Q8. Which type of irrigation system uses pipes to deliver water directly to plants?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Drip irrigation uses pipes with emitters to deliver water directly to the roots of plants, reducing water wastage.
Q9. The method used for determining the flow through a porous medium in groundwater hydrology is:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Darcy’s Law is used to calculate the flow of water through a porous medium, which is essential in groundwater hydrology.
Q10. What is a spillway used for in a dam?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A spillway is used to safely release excess water from a dam when the water level exceeds a certain point, preventing damage to the dam structure.
Q11. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the design of irrigation canals?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Gravity dam spillways are related to dam design, while canals are part of irrigation systems. Cross drainage structures, lined and unlined canals, and soil permeability are related to canal design.
Q12. The unit hydrograph is used to analyze:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The unit hydrograph is used to analyze the flood response to a unit of precipitation over a given period, helping estimate runoff.
Q13. What is the primary concern when designing weirs on permeable foundations?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The primary concern is the potential for foundation erosion, as permeable foundations may allow water to seep through and erode the base of the weir.
Q14. Evapotranspiration in the context of irrigation is important for:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Evapotranspiration is a key factor in estimating the total water needs of crops by accounting for both water evaporation from soil and transpiration from plants.
Q15. The Steady State Well Hydraulics deals with:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Steady state well hydraulics focuses on the analysis of groundwater flow to a well under steady, unchanging conditions.
Q16. The Boussinesq theory is primarily used to:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Boussinesq theory is used to calculate the pressure distribution in soils under shallow foundations, helping with foundation design.
Q17. The primary function of cross drainage structures in irrigation systems is to:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Cross drainage structures are used to allow water to flow from one side of a canal or other watercourse to another, typically to manage drainage between different areas.
Q18. Which of the following is a key parameter in determining the water demand for a crop?
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Evapotranspiration is a key parameter that helps determine the crop's water demand by considering both water loss through evaporation and transpiration from the plants.
Q19. Which of the following is NOT directly associated with groundwater hydrology?
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Surface runoff is related to surface water flow, while groundwater hydrology focuses on water flow through aquifers and the movement of water below the surface.
Q20. In an irrigation system, the duty of water can be defined as:
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Duty refers to the area that can be irrigated by a specific volume of water, measuring the efficiency of water use.
Q.21 Which of the following are included in the Hydrologic Cycle?
Answer: (A), (B), (C), (D)
Explanation: The hydrologic cycle involves various processes including precipitation (fall of water to earth), evaporation (water returning to the atmosphere), condensation (formation of clouds), and infiltration (water movement into the soil).
Q.22 In groundwater hydrology, which of the following statements are true?
Answer: (A), (B), (C)
Explanation: Darcy's Law is a fundamental principle in groundwater hydrology, which explains how water moves through porous media, influenced by the hydraulic gradient. Steady-state well hydraulics assumes no change in water level. Surface conditions can affect groundwater flow through infiltration.
Q.23 The evapotranspiration process includes:
Answer: (A), (B), (D)
Explanation: Evapotranspiration is the combined process of evaporation from the soil and transpiration from plants. It represents the total water lost to the atmosphere from both soil and plants.
Q.24 Which of the following irrigation systems are classified under surface irrigation methods?
Answer: (B), (C)
Explanation: Surface irrigation systems involve the distribution of water over the soil surface. Furrow irrigation (water flowing between rows of crops) and flood irrigation (water flooding the field) are surface methods. Drip and sprinkler irrigation are pressurized systems and are not considered surface irrigation.
1. Which of the following parameters are used in water quality standards?
Answer: (A), (B), (C)
Explanation: Water quality standards are based on physical, chemical, and biological parameters. These are essential for assessing the potability and treatment needs of water.
2. What does the Water Quality Index (WQI) measure?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Water Quality Index (WQI) is used to assess the overall health of water quality by considering multiple parameters such as pH, turbidity, dissolved oxygen, etc.
3. Which of the following are unit processes used in water treatment?
Answer: (A), (B), (C), (D)
Explanation: Coagulation, filtration, sedimentation, and disinfection are common unit processes used in the treatment of drinking water to remove impurities.
4. In the design of a sewerage system, which of the following factors are considered?
Answer: (A), (B), (C), (D)
Explanation: When designing a sewerage system, factors like wastewater quantity, types of pollutants, treatment facilities, and the collection/transportation system are crucial for effective system design.
5. Which of the following treatment methods are used for primary treatment of wastewater?
Answer: (A), (B)
Explanation: Primary treatment involves the physical removal of suspended solids and particulate matter through screening and sedimentation. Filtration and activated sludge are secondary or advanced treatments.
6. What is the main objective of secondary treatment of wastewater?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Secondary treatment mainly uses biological processes to remove biodegradable organic matter that remains after primary treatment.
7. Which of the following are sources of air pollution?
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Industrial emissions, vehicular emissions, and agricultural activities are all major sources of air pollution, contributing to both primary and secondary pollutants.
8. Which of the following pollutants are classified as primary air pollutants?
Answer: (A), (C), (D)
Explanation: Carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, and sulfur dioxide are primary pollutants released directly into the atmosphere. Ozone is a secondary pollutant formed through chemical reactions in the atmosphere.
9. The Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) management includes which of the following steps?
Answer: (A), (B), (C), (D)
Explanation: MSW management involves multiple steps: generation, collection, transportation, and finally treatment and disposal or recycling of the waste.
10. Which of the following are methods for solid waste management?
Answer: (A), (B), (C), (D)
Explanation: Solid waste management includes various techniques such as recycling, energy recovery, composting, and landfilling to reduce the environmental impact of waste.
11. What is the main purpose of a sewerage system?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The primary purpose of a sewerage system is to transport wastewater from homes and industries to treatment plants for further processing.
12. Which of the following is NOT a biological method of wastewater treatment?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Reverse osmosis is a physical method of filtration, whereas activated sludge process, trickling filters, and rotating biological contactors are biological methods of wastewater treatment.
13. The water requirement for a population depends on:
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Water requirement for a population depends on factors like per capita consumption, water availability, and seasonal variations in demand, which must be accounted for in water supply planning.
14. Which of the following is NOT a type of water pollution?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Geothermal pollution is not typically classified as a type of water pollution. Thermal, biological, and nutrient pollution are common types of water pollution affecting ecosystems.
15. Which of the following is a primary pollutant of air?
Answer: (B), (D)
Explanation: Particulate matter (PM) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) are primary pollutants that are directly emitted into the atmosphere. Ozone is a secondary pollutant formed from chemical reactions.
16. What is the goal of effluent discharge standards?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Effluent discharge standards are established to ensure that treated wastewater meets environmental criteria, protecting aquatic ecosystems and public health.
17. Which of the following is a method for recycling municipal solid waste?
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Composting is a method for recycling organic waste in municipal solid waste. Incineration and landfilling are disposal methods, not recycling.
18. The primary treatment of wastewater involves:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Primary treatment of wastewater primarily involves the removal of suspended solids through physical processes like sedimentation.
19. Sludge disposal in wastewater treatment is important for:
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Sludge disposal is a key aspect of managing the waste byproducts produced during wastewater treatment. Improper disposal can lead to environmental contamination.
20. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of municipal solid waste (MSW)?
Answer: (C)
Explanation: MSW may not always include hazardous waste. While it often contains both biodegradable and non-biodegradable materials, hazardous waste is not a guaranteed component.
21.
Assertion (A): Biological treatment methods are generally more cost-effective than chemical treatment methods for wastewater.
Reason (R): Biological treatment processes, such as activated sludge and trickling filters, use naturally occurring microorganisms to degrade organic pollutants, which lowers operational costs.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(D) Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Biological treatment methods are indeed more cost-effective because they utilize natural microorganisms for the breakdown of organic materials, which is often cheaper than using chemical treatments that require purchasing and handling chemicals.
22.
Assertion (A): The sludge produced in wastewater treatment plants can be recycled and used as a fertilizer.
Reason (R): The organic content in the sludge, after treatment, can be used to improve soil fertility, as it contains nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(D) Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Treated sludge, particularly from primary and secondary treatment processes, often contains valuable nutrients and can be used as fertilizer. This practice helps recycle waste materials and enrich soil with essential nutrients.
23.
Assertion (A): Air quality standards are set to protect both human health and the environment from the harmful effects of pollutants.
Reason (R): Air quality standards limit the concentrations of pollutants in the atmosphere, ensuring that they remain below levels that could cause significant health problems or environmental damage.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(D) Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Air quality standards are established to maintain pollutant levels within safe limits to protect public health and the environment. The reason for setting these standards is indeed to prevent adverse effects on human health and ecological balance.
24.
Assertion (A): The reuse of treated sewage for irrigation purposes can contribute to water conservation.
Reason (R): Reusing treated sewage for irrigation reduces the demand for fresh water, as it provides an alternative water source for agricultural activities.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(D) Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Reusing treated sewage for irrigation is a key strategy for water conservation. It reduces reliance on freshwater sources for agriculture, providing a sustainable alternative and helping manage water resources more effectively.
1. In highway design, the stopping sight distance (SSD) increases with:
(A) Decrease in gradient
(B) Increase in reaction time
(C) Decrease in speed
(D) Decrease in friction
Answer: (B)
Explanation: SSD is directly proportional to reaction time and speed; increase in either increases SSD.
2. The maximum super-elevation in plain terrain for highways in India as per IRC is:
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
Answer: (B)
Explanation: IRC recommends a maximum super-elevation of 7% for plain terrain.
3. Which of the following determines the length of an airport runway?
(A) Wind speed only
(B) Elevation and temperature
(C) Traffic load only
(D) Pavement type
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Higher elevation and temperature reduce air density, requiring longer runways.
4. Cant deficiency in railways refers to:
(A) Cant more than required
(B) Cant less than required
(C) Superelevation
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Cant deficiency occurs when the actual cant is less than required for equilibrium.
5. IRC method of flexible pavement design is based on:
(A) Elastic theory
(B) Empirical method
(C) Plate load test
(D) Westergaard's method
Answer: (B)
Explanation: IRC method is empirical, based on CBR values.
6. Bitumen grade 60/70 implies:
(A) Penetration between 60 and 70 mm
(B) Viscosity at 60–70°C
(C) Softening point of 60–70°C
(D) Penetration between 60 and 70 tenths of mm
Answer: (D)
Explanation: 60/70 bitumen has a penetration value between 6.0–7.0 mm (tenths of mm).
7. In vertical curve design, the highest point for summit curve lies at:
(A) Midpoint of the curve
(B) Start point
(C) End point
(D) Point of intersection of gradients
Answer: (A)
Explanation: For summit curves, the highest point is at the midpoint.
8. Transition curves are provided in highways to:
(A) Reduce radius
(B) Gradually introduce curvature and superelevation
(C) Improve aesthetics
(D) Shorten alignment
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Transition curves provide a smooth change from straight to curved alignment.
9. Webster’s method of signal design is used to determine:
(A) Speed limits
(B) Optimum cycle time
(C) Sight distance
(D) Intersection grade
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Webster’s method optimizes cycle time for minimal vehicle delay.
10. The camber provided in highways helps in:
(A) Speed control
(B) Drainage
(C) Vehicle turning
(D) Braking efficiency
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Camber facilitates surface water drainage from road surface.
11. Design speed is defined as:
(A) Minimum permissible speed
(B) Legal speed limit
(C) Safe speed under normal conditions
(D) Speed for vehicle testing
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Design speed is the speed a vehicle can safely maintain under design conditions.
12. Sight distance depends on:
(A) Friction, reaction time, gradient
(B) Vehicle type only
(C) Pavement material only
(D) Weather alone
Answer: (A)
Explanation: All listed factors affect the available and required sight distance.
13. Rigid pavements distribute load through:
(A) Grain-to-grain contact
(B) Slab action
(C) Bitumen layers
(D) Load transfer through water
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Rigid pavements distribute load by slab action due to flexural strength.
14. Peak Hour Factor (PHF) is a measure of:
(A) Daily traffic
(B) Uniformity of traffic flow
(C) Vehicle types
(D) Load carrying capacity
Answer: (B)
Explanation: PHF indicates the variation of traffic within the peak hour.
15. The critical length of runway is governed by:
(A) Take-off only
(B) Landing only
(C) The longest of take-off, landing, and stopway
(D) Width of runway
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Critical length is the maximum among take-off, landing, and stopway requirements.
16. Which of the following is not a component of bituminous mix design?
(A) Aggregate gradation
(B) Air void content
(C) Water-cement ratio
(D) Stability and flow
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Water-cement ratio is for concrete, not used in bituminous mix.
17. In horizontal alignment, curve radius is directly proportional to:
(A) Superelevation and speed²
(B) Speed only
(C) Superelevation only
(D) Reaction time
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Radius ∝ (V²)/e where V is speed, e is superelevation.
18. Warping stresses in rigid pavements are caused by:
(A) Traffic load
(B) Temperature variation
(C) Moisture content
(D) Poor drainage
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Warping occurs due to temperature gradient across pavement depth.
19. Microscopic traffic parameters include:
(A) Flow and density
(B) Speed and headway
(C) Traffic volume
(D) Peak hour factor
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Microscopic parameters consider individual vehicle behavior.
20. Traffic rotary intersections are preferred when:
(A) Low-speed traffic is expected
(B) High-speed merge is required
(C) Traffic volume is balanced in all directions
(D) Roads are narrow
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Rotaries are best when traffic is evenly distributed in all directions.
21. Assertion (A): Transition curves are essential in both horizontal and vertical alignments.
Reason (R): They help in providing comfort and gradual change in curvature or gradient.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Transition curves are essential to provide a smooth change in both curvature and gradient, improving safety and comfort.
22. Assertion (A): Superelevation helps counteract centrifugal force on curves.
Reason (R): Superelevation is the inward tilt provided to outer edge of pavement.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Superelevation is provided to counteract centrifugal force on curves, hence improving safety and stability.
23. Which parameters are required in design of flexible pavements using CBR method?
(A) CBR value
(B) Design traffic in msa
(C) Sub-grade modulus
(D) Soil classification
Answer: (A), (B)
Explanation: CBR method uses California Bearing Ratio and design traffic to determine pavement thickness.
24. Which of the following factors affect runway length design?
(A) Airport elevation
(B) Ambient temperature
(C) Wind direction
(D) Pavement width
Answer: (A), (B), (C)
Explanation: Runway length varies with elevation, temperature, and wind; width is a structural factor.
25. Which of the following are components of geometric design of highways?
(A) Superelevation
(B) Camber
(C) Shoulder width
(D) Aggregate grading
Answer: (A), (B), (C)
Explanation: Superelevation, camber, and shoulder width are key components of highway geometric design.
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